Review of Related Disease (RRD) 5 Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Malaria is caused by which type of organism?
• HIV retinopathy typically presents with which retinal finding?
• The phrase 'headlight in the fog' is commonly used to describe the lesion of which condition?
• Which statement correctly characterizes normal tension glaucoma?
• Which finding is associated with rubella-related ocular involvement in addition to cataracts?
• In a status update stating Resolution with no symptoms, which statement is most accurate?
• Which finding is associated with malignant hypertension?
• Which neurological symptom is commonly associated with vitamin B12 deficiency?
• Which stage follows the acute stage in infection progression?
• Primary polycythemia vera is best described as:
• Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) occurs because:
• Impetigo is best described as which type of infection?
• Central serous chorioretinopathy is commonly associated with which non-steroidal factor?
• Giardiasis is caused by which type of organism and commonly linked to what source?
• Which option best describes the treatment for pseudomembranous colitis?
• Tetanus toxin exerts its effect by what mechanism?
• In leukemia with leukocytosis, why can't the patient fight infection?
• Pertussis is best described as which disease?
• The suffix -penia denotes what?
• In a Resolution note, which statement best describes the relationship between signs and symptoms and pathogen status?
• In normal tension glaucoma, the glaucomatous optic neuropathy occurs with IOP below what threshold?
• Name two primary treatments for proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
• Standard Precautions include which actions?
• Microcephaly is defined as which of the following?
• Posterior subcapsular cataract is a known long-term ocular sequela of which medication class?
• Thrombocytosis refers to a platelet count above 400,000 and is associated with:
• Rubeola (measles) requires which type of PPE for protection?
• Botulism is often associated with exposure to which environment?
• Which mechanism best explains hypercalcemia in multiple myeloma?
• Iron deficiency anemia is commonly caused by which factors?
• Progression from NPDR to PDR is most accurately marked by which event?
• Which statement best describes BRVO fundus involvement?
• Mumps is caused by which type of agent?
• Pertussis is caused by which type of pathogen?
• Which retinal finding is most strongly associated with risk of vision loss and commonly prompts evaluation for macular edema?
• Toxoplasma retinochoroiditis lesion morphology?
• Which drug class is commonly associated with central serous chorioretinopathy?
• List typical retinal signs of hypertensive retinopathy.
• Rubella infection can cause which teratogenic effects?
• In fluorescein angiography, what finding suggests active neovascularization or leakage?
• Which condition is associated with greasy frothy stools and a protozoan cause?
• For MRSA, which infection-control precautions are recommended?
• The sudden onset of intense floaters and flashes with a curtain-like vision loss is most consistent with which condition?
• Which findings best differentiate nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) from proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR)?
• When is B-scan ultrasonography indicated in ocular disease?
• After Resolution, what is the most appropriate public health action?
• Encephalitis refers to inflammation of which organ?
• In malaria, the parasite first multiplies in which organ before invading red blood cells?
• For diseases that are airborne, which PPE is typically recommended?
• What diagnostic test helps delineate capillary nonperfusion and neovascularization and guides laser treatment?
• Variola (smallpox) is described as which type of virus in the material?
• Which of the following is commonly present in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• Which HLA-associated condition is commonly linked to acute anterior uveitis?
• Rabies is caused by which category of pathogen?
• What is the normal hemoglobin range?
• Varicella (chickenpox) is characterized by vesicles that start on the trunk and crust at different times. Which disease matches this description?
• What vitamin deficiency presents with night blindness and conjunctival xerosis?
• What systemic inflammatory disease commonly causes granulomatous uveitis and choroidal involvement?
• After Resolution with no S&S, what best describes surveillance?
• Cellulitis is an infection of which skin layer?
• Thrombocyte is the medical term for which component?
• In AMD, central vision loss in wet AMD is primarily due to
• Which statement about Standard Precautions is true?
• Which scenario aligns with Pathogen eliminated in the Resolution context?
• Amoebic dysentery is associated with which description?
• What are drusen and where are they located?
• Which disease is associated with a pseudomembrane over the tonsils and throat?
• Which congenital condition is associated with Zika virus infection during pregnancy?
• What are typical signs of endophthalmitis after intraocular surgery?
• Name a major risk factor for AMD.
• In outbreak reporting, the term Resolution most accurately indicates:
• What constitutes the wet form of AMD and how does it differ from dry AMD?
• True or false: Anterior uveitis commonly presents with a clear cornea and no cells in the anterior chamber.
• Which scenario is an example of Airborne Precautions?
• Which sign is commonly observed in anterior uveitis?
• Erythrocyte is the term for which blood component?
• Which infant eye condition is strongly associated with oxygen therapy and prematurity?
• Which finding indicates malignant hypertension in hypertensive retinopathy?
• Which scenario is an example of Droplet Precautions?
• Encephalitis is best defined as which of the following?
• What characterizes the convalescent period?
• Which set correctly matches normal ranges for hemoglobin and hematocrit?
• An embolus is defined as:
• A thrombus is defined as:
• Proliferative diabetic retinopathy neovascularization increases risk of which complications?
• What is a typical treatment for normocytic anemia?
• Nosocomial infections are best described as infections acquired in which setting?
• Herpes Zoster is reactivation of latent infection with Varicella-Zoster virus and presents as which type of rash?
• Diptheria is caused by which type of agent?
• Which organisms are listed under bacterial diarrhea?
• What is a common treatment for macrocytic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency?
• The immediate management step for acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• Which statement best describes the signs and symptoms under a Resolution status?
• Central retinal artery occlusion presents with which urgent signs?
• Bacillary (Shigella) dysentery is characterized by which feature?
• Rubeola (measles) is characterized by what type of rash?
• Which isolation policy is most consistent with Resolution?
• Hypersplenism leads to what hematologic change?
• Pernicious anemia is due to a deficiency of which factor leading to impaired vitamin B12 absorption?
• Which statement best contrasts erythrocytosis with polycythemia?
• Botulism toxin causes descending, symmetric paralysis by which mechanism?
• Pseudomembranous colitis results from antibiotic use by wiping out gut flora. Which option best captures this?
• In post-outbreak reporting, which statement best describes Resolution status?
• B-scan ultrasonography can evaluate which posterior segment pathologies when fundus view is not possible?
• Which ocular complication of long-term systemic corticosteroid use is associated with elevated intraocular pressure?
• Name two ocular sequelae of systemic corticosteroid therapy relevant to the eye.
• What is the first-line pharmacologic management to rapidly reduce IOP in acute angle-closure?
• Erythrocyte describes which blood component?
• After a disease reaches Resolution, which finding is most consistent with ongoing monitoring?
• Leukocyte is best defined as which component of blood?
• Reactivation of varicella-zoster virus affecting the eye commonly presents as which condition?
• Which scenario is an example of Contact Precautions?
• The condition characterized by a platelet count above 400,000 and increased risk of thrombosis is called:
• Leukocyte is defined as which of the following?
• What is the hallmark ocular finding in CMV retinitis in an AIDS patient?
• Which signs are hallmark of anterior uveitis?
• Macrocytic anemia is usually due to deficiency of which vitamin because of lack of intrinsic factor?
• During the incubation period, which is true?
• Which statement about BRVO is true?
• Which statement about central corneal thickness is a risk factor for open-angle glaucoma?
• Which statement best describes the meaning of Resolution in a clinical report?
• Which is the most common inherited clotting disorder?:
• Mumps primarily involves which gland?
• Resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae refers to ear infection bacteria that are resistant to which antibiotic?
• Which finding is typically seen in malignant hypertension?
• Hemophilia is best described as which of the following:
• What is the normal red blood cell (RBC) count per liter?
• Identify one main treatment for neovascular (wet) AMD.
• Microcytic anemia is defined by which MCV value?
• The environmental reservoir for Clostridium tetani is typically which?
• Which statement describes the acute stage of infection?
• Which statement best reflects the meaning of Resolution in clinical terms?
• Von Willebrand disease is correctly described as:
• Which factor most strongly influences progression of hypertensive retinopathy: duration of hypertension, blood pressure level, or age?
• Polycythemia is characterized by hematocrit greater than what value?
• Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) is characterized by which mechanism?
• What does OCTA visualize, and how is it different from fluorescein angiography?
• Thrombocytopenia is best defined as:
• Which statement correctly differentiates dry and wet AMD?
• An embolus is best described as:
• What is splenomegaly?
• Drusen are most closely associated with which condition?
• Cirrhosis affects coagulation by:
• Ethambutol can cause which optic neuropathy as a dose-related effect?
• Secondary polycythemia is characterized by an increase in red blood cells caused by:
• Hemophilia is best described as:
• Which is NOT listed as a cause of splenomegaly?
• Dysphagia is a symptom commonly associated with which disease?
• Which disease features blisters that start on the face and move toward the trunk with crusts forming at the same time?
• Which symptoms are characteristic of viral diarrhea according to the material?
• An RBC count greater than 6 million per liter is most consistent with which condition?
• Which of the following is NOT a major risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma?
• What is the normal hematocrit range?
• A red blood cell count less than 4 million per liter is most consistent with which condition?
• Which feature distinguishes ischemic CRVO clinically?
• Which systemic infectious disease is classically associated with posterior uveitis and chorioretinitis requiring serology or dark-field testing for diagnosis?
• Fluorescein angiography is characterized by:
• Which diagnostic method is classically used for syphilitic posterior uveitis?
• What is arteriovenous (A-V) nicking and what does it indicate?
• Which condition is associated with reactivation of varicella-zoster virus affecting the eye?
• Tetanus is caused by which type of organism?
• Erythrocytosis is defined by which finding?
• What is the purpose of panretinal photocoagulation in proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
• Which S&S are associated with multiple myeloma?
• Which retinal finding is most characteristic of malignant hypertension?
• How does HbA1c relate to progression risk of diabetic retinopathy?
• Why is an annual influenza vaccine recommended?
• Which description best matches a typical glaucomatous visual field defect?
• How does hypertensive retinopathy grade reflect systemic blood pressure status?
• What screening method is recommended for hydroxychloroquine retinopathy risk?
• What distinguishes CRVO from BRVO in terms of fundus appearance?
• Distinguish a normal ERG from an abnormal ERG pattern typical of retinitis pigmentosa.
• Which clinical feature is typical of acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• Which describes the current health status when S&S are absent in a Resolution note?
• Thrombocyte corresponds to which blood component?
• What best describes the prodromal stage of infection?
• A vector-borne disease is transmitted to humans primarily through.
• MRSA refers to normal skin bacteria that have developed resistance to which class of antibiotics?
• Which statement best describes the signs and symptoms commonly seen in leukemia?
• How is macular edema treated in retinal vein occlusion?
• What is a hallmark consequence of hypersplenism?
• In CMV retinitis, vitritis is typically what?
• Varicella (chickenpox) is caused by which type of virus?
• Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat) is caused by which type of organism?
• Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is most appropriate for diseases requiring droplet precautions?
• Which imaging modality is most accurate for evaluating macular thickness and edema in diabetic retinopathy?
• Normocytic anemia with MCV 80-95 is most commonly seen with which conditions?
• In surveillance terminology, Resolution most strongly implies:
• What is the hallmark of dry AMD?
• Congenital rubella syndrome ocular findings commonly include which of the following?